Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Is it wise to choose your family over your honor?

There's no rule.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Is it possible for people who claim to be genuine and honest to actually not be? If so, why do they behave this way?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Why am I losing interest to get a job and to all my desires because of this spiritual awakening? How do I get through life because of it?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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